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Q1. In India, the highest literacy rate is in which state?

• 1) Kerala
• 2) Maharashtra
• 3) Karnataka
• 4) Tamil Nadu

Solution

Kerala has the highest literacy rate of about 90.92%.

Q2. Which of the following is not a type of assisted reproductive technology (ART)?

• 1) AIT
• 2) GIFT
• 3) CVS
• 4) ICSI

Solution

CVS or chorionic villus sampling is a technique of determining the genetic makeup of the foetus during a period when abortion is safe.

Q3. Measles vaccine is given in a single dose at the age of

• 1) 5-6 years
• 2) 3-12 months
• 3) 18-24 months
• 4) 9-15 months

Solution

Age  Vaccine  3-12 months DTP and polio 9-15 months Measles 18-24 months DTP and polio booster 5-6 years DT and typhoid  

Q4. Induced abortion is also called

• 1) IUD
• 2) SID
• 3) MTP
• 4) PID

Solution

Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before the foetus becomes viable is called Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) or induced abortion.

Q5. CVS stands for

• 1) Chorionic Viral Sampling
• 2) Chorionic Villus Sampling
• 3) Chorionic Vital Sampling
• 4) Chorionic Virtual Sampling

Solution

Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is a technique similar to amniocentesis, except that it can be performed during the eighth to tenth week of pregnancy when abortion is safe.

Q6. The causative organism for genital warts is

• 1) Chlamydia trachomatis
• 2) Sarcoptes scabiei
• 3) Human papillomavirus
• 4) Treponema pallidum

Solution

Causative organisms Disease  Treponema pallidum Syphilis Chlamydia trachomatis Chlamydiasis Sarcoptes scabiei Scabies Human papillomavirus Genital warts  

Q7. Condoms are one of the most popular methods of contraception because of the following reasons:

• 1) They help in reducing the risk of STDs.
• 2) They do not interfere with the coital act.
• 3) All of the above
• 4) They are effective barriers for insemination.

Solution

Condoms are one of the most popular methods of contraception because they are effective barriers for insemination. They do not interfere with the coital act. They help in reducing the risk of STDs without any side-effects.

Q8. In terms of population, MMR stands for

• 1) Morbid Mortality Rate
• 2) Maternal Mortality Rate
• 3) Moderate Mortality Rate
• 4) Maturity Mortality Rate

Solution

MMR stands for Maternal Mortality Rate.

Q9. The first test-tube baby was born in

• 1) China
• 2) America
• 3) England
• 4) India

Solution

The first test-tube baby was born in England on 25^th July 1987. It was a baby girl named Louise Brown. 

Q10. One of the legal methods of birth control is

• 1) By abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
• 2) By having coitus at the time of daybreak
• 3) By premature ejaculation during coitus
• 4) Abortion by taking an appropriate medicine

Solution

The regulation of conception by preventive methods or devices to limit the number of offspring is called birth control. There are many methods of birth control such as natural methods, mechanical methods, physiological devices and injections and implants. Of these, abortion by taking an appropriate medicine is one of the most widely accepted method of birth control.

Q11. Which one of the following groups includes sexually transmitted diseases?

• 1) Gonorrhoea, Hepatitis B, Chlamydiasis
• 2) Hepatitis B, Haemophilia, AIDS
• 3) HIV, Malaria, Trichomoniasis
• 4) AIDS, Syphilis, Cholera

Solution

Diseases or infections which are transmitted through sexual intercourse with infected persons are called sexually transmitted diseases or STDs. Gonorrhoea is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae (bacteria), Hepatitis B is caused by Hepatitis B virus and Chlamydiasis is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.

Q12. A test-tube baby means a baby born when

• 1) It is developed by tissue culture method.
• 2) The ovum is fertilised externally and thereafter implanted in the uterus.
• 3) It is developed in a test tube.
• 4) It develops from a non-fertilised egg.

Solution

The baby produced by conceiving in a culture dish and nursing in the uterus is called a test-tube baby. The ovum is fertilised externally and thereafter it is implanted in the uterus.

Q13. LNG-20 is which type of a birth control device?

• 1) Condom
• 2) Diaphragm
• 3) Cervical cap
• 4) IUD

Solution

LNG-20 is a hormone-releasing IUD.

Q14. At the time of Independence, the population of India was 350 million, which exploded to over 1 billion by May 2000. List any two reasons for this rise in population and any two steps taken by the government to check this population explosion. 

Solution

Two reasons for increase in population are (i) A rapid decline in the death rate, maternal mortality rate and infant mortality rate. (ii) Increase in the number of people of reproducible age. Two steps for checking population explosion: (i) Statutory raising of marriageable age of females to 18 years and males to 21 years. (ii) Incentives given to couples with small families. 

Q15. The test-tube baby programme employs which one of the following techniques?

• 1) Intra-uterine insemination (lUI)
• 2) Gamete intra-fallopian transfer (GIFT)
• 3) Intra-cytoplasmic sperm injection (lCSI)
• 4) Zygote intra-fallopian transfer (ZIFT)

Solution

A baby produced by conceiving in a culture dish and nursing in the uterus is called a test-tube baby. The test-tube baby programme involves either ZIFT (zygote intra-fallopian transfer) in which the zygote or the early embryo (up to 8 blastomere stage) is transferred into the fallopian tube of females or IUT (intra-uterine transfer) in which the embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred into the uterus to complete further development of the zygote or embryo.

Q16. The present population growth rate in India is alarming. Suggest ways to check it.  

Solution

Ways to check population growth: (i) By increasing marriageable age (ii) By promoting the use of birth control measures (iii) By educating people about the consequences of uncontrolled population growth 

Q17. STDs are high in people of the age group:

• 1) 15-24 years
• 2) 35-52 years
• 3) 10-15 years
• 4) 24-35 years

Solution

STDs can occur in individuals of all age groups, but its occurrence is high in adolescents of the age group 15-24 years.

Q18. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned below, identify the one which does not specifically affect the sex organs:

• 1) Genital warts
• 2) AIDS
• 3) Syphilis
• 4) Gonorrhoea

Solution

In syphilis, sores occur on the genitals. In gonorrhoea, swelling of the vulva occurs. In genital warts, flesh-coloured bumps appear on the vagina, vulva, cervix, penis, anus or urethra.

Q19. The human population follows

• 1) J-shaped growth curve
• 2) Z-shaped growth curve
• 3) All of the above
• 4) S-shaped growth curve

Solution

S-shaped or sigmoid growth curve graph indicates that the population growth of a species has three phases - the exponential phase, the transitional phase and the plateau phase. A J-shaped population curve is a graph which depicts the exponential growth of the population size.

Q20. Within what age group are sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) reported to be very high? Mention three practices to avoid them.

Solution

In the age group of 15-24 years, STDs are reported to be very high. Following are the three practices to avoid them: (i) Avoid sex with unknown partners or multiple partners. (ii) Always use condoms during coitus. (iii) In case of any doubt, medical help should be taken for early detection. 

Q21. Subcutaneous implants of progesterone capsules inserted into the arm of females serve as a contraceptive measure. It ensures its effects for how long a period of time?

• 1) 5 years
• 2) 4 years
• 3) 2 years
• 4) 3 years

Solution

Subcutaneous implants of progesterone capsules inserted into the arm of females serve as a contraceptive measure. These capsules release progesterone slowly over a period of five years and hence prevent pregnancy for five years.

Q22. Which one of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India at present?

• 1) IUDs (Intrauterine devices)
• 2) Cervical caps
• 3) Diaphragms
• 4) Tubectomy

Solution

An intrauterine device (IUD) is the most common contraceptive method in females. It prevents the fertilisation of the egg by damaging or killing the sperm.

Q23. Amniocentesis is a process to

• 1) Grow cells on a culture medium
• 2) Know about the disease of the brain
• 3) Determine any disease of the heart
• 4) Determine any hereditary disease of the embryo

Solution

Amniocentesis is a medical procedure used in prenatal diagnosis of chromosomal abnormalities and foetal infections and also used for sex determination.

Q24. How are assisted reproductive technologies helpful to humans? How are ZIFT and GIFT different from intra-uterine transfers? Explain.

Solution

The infertile couples could be assisted to have children through certain special techniques known as assisted reproductive technologies (ART). ZIFT: The zygote or early embryo with up to 8 blastomeres is transferred into the fallopian tube. This is called zygote intra-fallopian transfer (ZIFT). GIFT: Gamete intra-fallopian transfer is the transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who cannot produce one but can provide a suitable environment for fertilisation and further development of the embryo. Intra-uterine transfer (IUT) refers to the introduction of an embryo with more than 8 blastomeres into the uterus of a female to complete its further development. 

Q25. The percentage ratio of natality over mortality is called

• 1) Vital index
• 2) None of the above
• 3) Total count
• 4) Population density

Solution

Complete count or total count considers every member of the population. Population density is a measurement of population per unit area or unit volume.

Q26. What is meant by artificial insemination?  

Solution

Artificial insemination is a  technique by  which  the semen  collected from  the  husband or  a  healthy donor is artificially introduced either into the vagina  or into  the uterus of the female.

Q27. What is the significant role of MTP in human population?

Solution

MTP or Medical Termination of Pregnancy is done to get rid of unwanted pregnancies due to (i) Casual unprotected intercourse (ii) Failure of the contraceptive used during coitus (iii) Rape It is also essential in cases where continuation of pregnancy could pose a threat to the life of either the mother or foetus or both. 

Q28. What do you mean by reproductive health? Mention the different ways in which people are made aware of the significance of reproductively healthy society.

Solution

Reproductive health means total well-being in all aspects of reproduction, i.e. physical, emotional, behavioural, social and physiological. Following measures are to be taken to make people aware of reproductively healthy society: (i) Providing infrastructural facilities and professional expertise to attain reproductive health. (ii) Educating people about birth control methods, care of pregnant mothers, importance of breast feeding, safe and hygienic sexual practices and safeguards against STDs. (iii) Introduction of sex education in schools to give proper information to young minds about sex-related aspects. (iv) Help of audio-visual and print-media to create awareness among people about reproduction-related aspects. (v) Awareness of problems due to population explosion, social evils such as sex abuse and sex-related crimes. (vi) Statutory ban on amniocentesis to legally check female foeticides. 

Q29. Expand the following: (i) ART (ii) GIFT (iii) ICSI (iv) RTI (v) lUI

Solution

(i) ART: Assisted Reproductive Technology (ii) GIFT: Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer (iii) ICSI: Intra-Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (iv) RTI: Reproductive Tract Infections (v) lUI: Intra-Uterine Insemination 

Q30. Why is tubectomy considered a contraceptive method?

Solution

Tubectomy involves cutting a piece of the fallopian tube and tying its ends. This way, the sperms are not able to reach the egg and it acts as a contraceptive method. 

Q31. Which period of the menstrual cycle is called the risky period of conception?

• 1) 15^th to 25^th day
• 2) 3^rd to 7^th day
• 3) 10^th to 17^th day
• 4) 7^th to 13^th day

Solution

To avoid the chances of conception, couples avoid or abstain from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle when ovulation could be expected.

Q32. Describe the technique by which a genetic disorder in a developing foetus can be detected.

Solution

Amniocentesis is a technique by which a genetic disorder in a developing foetus can be detected. This is based on the chromosomal pattern in the amniotic fluid surrounding the developing embryo. The amniotic fluid contains cells and molecules shed by the foetus. The chromosomes of foetal cells can also be used to find out the sex of the foetus. So, if an abnormality is found, the mother should get the foetus aborted.